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Management External Assessment

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Chapter 4 Perception, Attribution, and the Management of Diversity 1) When managers become aware of evidence of potential discrimination, they should do all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) pay immediate attention to the problem
B) act proactively to address the potential problem
C) review the organization’s policies and practices
D) treat the potential discriminator unfairly

2) ________ is whatever the perceiver is trying to make sense of.
A) The quandary
B) The situation
C) The target of perception
D) The paradigm of possibility

3) It is essential for managers to pay careful attention to how they perceive and judge employees for all of the following reasons EXCEPT ________.
A) giving organizational members deserved rewards
B) establishing prices for goods and services
C) avoiding illegal discrimination
D) acting in an ethical manner

4) Schemas help people do all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) make sense of the confusing array of sensory input
B) minimize stereotypes and discrimination
C) choose what information to heed or to ignore
D) manage ambiguous information

5) ________ can be dysfunctional and damaging to the perceiver, the target, and the organization.

A) Objective truths
B) Accurate perception
C) Reality
D) Stereotypes

6) Stuart Martin, an employee of Davis and McIntyre, Inc., has worked very hard at being a good team player, and other workers compliment him on his willingness to work with others. However, Stuart was rated as a poor team player by his supervisor, who doesn’t like him personally. This inaccurate perception is MOST LIKELY due to the supervisor’s ________.

A) situation
B) point of view
C) motivational state
D) objective reality
7) ________ is the process whereby people select, organize, and interpret the input from their senses to give meaning and order to the world around them.

A) Understanding
B) Perception
C) Ratiocination
D) Acknowledgment

8) When an employee reminds his boss about his past accomplishments, the employee is using the tactic of ________.

A) self-promotion
B) situational conformity
C) appreciation
D) behavioral matching

9) ________ is an attempt to control the perceptions or impressions of others.

A) Stereotyping
B) Impression management
C) Perceptual targeting
D) Situational manipulation

10 When ________, the target follows agreed-upon rules for behavior in the organization.

A) practicing matching behavior
B) conforming to situational norms
C) being consistent
D) flattering others

11) Individuals who are high on self-monitoring are more likely than individuals who are low on self-monitoring to ________.

A) develop and use stereotypes
B) employ schemas
C) conform to situational norms
D) behave inappropriately

12) The ________ is the context or environment surrounding the perceiver and the target.

A) epicenter
B) situation
C) schema
D) fountainhead

13) ________ should NOT affect how a person is perceived by others.

A) Gender
B) Ability
C) Salience
D) Perception

14) Which of the following would LEAST LIKELY cause salience?

A) wearing jeans to work when the dress code does not allow it
B) wearing a red dress to a funeral
C) wearing a shirt and tie to an important business meeting
D) wearing sandals in the middle of a snow storm

15) The ________ is the biased perception that results when the first pieces of information that people have about some target have an inordinately large influence on their perception of the target.

A) primacy effect
B) contrast effect
C) halo effect
D) person-situation effect

16 A ________ effect occurs when perceptions of a target are influenced by perceptions of others surrounding the target.

A) halo
B) primacy
C) similar-to-me
D) contrast

17 Tom Seigmund, a supervisor of engineering at Thomas & Shaffer, Inc., is proud that his engineering staff wins the company basketball tournament each year. A key contributor to their success on the court is that most of the engineers, like Tom, are over 6′ 5″ and played college basketball. This extracurricular anecdote may indicate that engineering hiring decisions are impacted by ________.

A) leniency bias
B) contrast effect
C) similar-to-me bias
D) halo effect

Chapter 5 Learning and Creativity

18) ________ is a relatively permanent change in knowledge or behavior that results from practice or experience. A) Learning
B) Reconstruction
C) Behavior modification
D) Operant conditioning

19) In operant conditioning, learning occurs when the learner recognizes the link between ________.

A) a behavior and its consequences
B) a conditioned stimulus and its response
C) an antecedent and a successor
D) a negative reinforcement and its outcome

20) A teacher does not know how to handle one of her students. During her lessons, the student makes funny faces at her. The student is looking for attention from the teacher but disturbing nobody else in the class. Every time the student does this, the teacher stops the lesson and asks him why he is making faces. He doesn’t answer her and continues to make the funny faces. The teacher wants to use positive reinforcement to encourage a change in this behavior. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to change the behavior of this student with positive reinforcement?

A) The teacher pays attention to the student only when he raises his hand.
B) The teacher completely ignores the student.
C) The teacher gives stickers to all of the other students not making faces.
D) The teacher moves the student’s desk to the front of the classroom.

21) Positive ________ increases the probability that a behavior will occur by administering positive consequences to employees who perform the behavior.

A) conditioning
B) reinforcement
C) corroboration
D) modification

22) A professor instates a new classroom policy: For every five minutes a student is late, five points will be deducted from their participation grade for that day. The day after the policy is put into effect, three of the five students typically late come to class early. The MOST LIKELY reason for this change is the professor’s use of a ________.

A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) behavior modification
D) operant conditioning

23) An employer offers a $5.00 bonus to every employee who arrives at work early every day in a given week. This is an example of a ________.

A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) variable reinforcement
D) scheduled reinforcement

24) ________ reinforcement reinforces behavior every time it occurs.

A) Fixed-interval
B) Immediate
C) Continuous
D) Variable-interval

25) Which of the following is NOT one of the four schedules of partial reinforcement?

A) fixed-interval schedule
B) sequentially-set schedule
C) fixed-ratio schedule
D) variable-ratio schedule

26) Fred Friend sometimes rewards his workers by ordering out for pizza. He usually does this after he has received three to five compliments on his department’s performance, but over time, it averages out to every four compliments. Fred is using a ________.

A) fixed-interval schedule

B) variable-interval schedule?
C) fixed-ratio schedule
D) variable-ratio schedule

27) According to operant conditioning theory, punishment ________ the probability of an undesired behavior.

A) increases
B) reduces
C) negates
D) eliminates

28) ________ is the systematic application of the principles of operant conditioning for learning desired behaviors such as punctuality, safe work practices, and customer service.

A) Conditional learning
B) Organizational behavior modification
C) Social learning
D) Social cognitive modulation

29) Opponents of the use of OB MOD in organizations claim that it does all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) removes individuality from the organization
B) strips employees of their dignity
C) robs employees of their initiative
D) destroys organizational effectiveness

30) Dan Miller is trying to learn how to use a new computer system by watching a co-worker, Tom Seigmund, use the software on his computer. Social learning theory would refer to Tom as ________.

A) the antecedent of Dan’s behavior
B) the model for Dan’s learning?
C) the stimulus for Dan’s learning
D) the motivation for Dan’s actions

31) Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY a source of self-efficacy?

A) past performance
B) vicarious experience
C) internal physiological states
D) negative feedback

32) When a company successfully manufactures and markets a new product, it is engaged in ________.

A) creativity
B) R & D
C) mentoring
D) innovation

33) Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to contribute to an employee’s level of creativity?

A) internal locus of control
B) intelligence
C) self-esteem
D) structure

34) Organizational learning is most important to companies within ________ industries.

A) small
B) large
C) quickly evolving
D) slow changing

Chapter 6 The Nature of Work Motivation
35) Which element of work motivation answers the question “how hard does a person work to perform a chosen behavior”?

A) level of effort
B) openness
C) level of persistence
D) direction of behavior

36) Workers who repeatedly try to successfully perform a chosen behavior, despite roadblocks and obstacles, are BEST described as displaying ________.

A) maximum levels of resistance
B) high levels of positive affectivity
C) low levels of openness to experience
D) high levels of persistence

37) ________ work behavior is performed for its own sake.

A) Intrinsically motivated
B) Extrinsically motivated
C) Functionally motivated
D) Psychologically motivated

38) A manager surveyed his employees to find out what motivates them at work. Over three quarters of the employees responded that they are most concerned with providing for themselves and their families. The rest said they were motivated to fit in with society. To keep his employees motivated, the manager is MOST LIKELY to ________.

A) use extrinsic motivation as much as possible
B) use a mixture of intrinsic and extrinsic motivators for all employees?
C) file away the surveys because motivation does not determine performance
D) use intrinsic motivation as much as possible

39) Need theory, expectancy theory, equity theory, and organizational justice theory are ________.

A) complementary perspectives
B) mutually exclusive perspectives
C) divergent perspectives
D) noncontiguous perspectives

40) According to the hierarchy of needs, the most basic needs are ________.

A) safety and self-actualization
B) psychological and psychosocial
C) physiological and safety
D) analytical and pathological

41) The union movement in the coal mines of the eastern United States grew partially out of workers’ concerns over the dangers of working in the mines and the high number of accidents that occurred. Maslow would have characterized the workers who formed the unions based on these concerns as being motivated by ________.

A) self-actualization
B) safety needs
C) belonging needs
D) esteem needs

42) In ERG theory, ________ involve self-development and meaningful, productive work.

A) growth needs
B) existence needs
C) relatedness needs
D) physiological needs

43) ERG theory asserts that an individual who is frustrated in satisfying a higher-level need will ________.

A) stay at the current need level
B) increase the level of persistence until he or she satisfies the need
C) skip to the next higher level of need
D) experience increased motivation to satisfy lower-level needs?

44) If an employee does not think she is capable of performing at an adequate level even with maximum effort, her motivation to perform at that level will be ________.

A) high
B) low
C) zero
D) average

45) If an outcome has a ________, an employee prefers having the outcome to not having it.

A) negative valence
B) positive valence
C) neutral valence
D) value-specific valence

46) Expectancy is a worker’s perception about the relationship between ________.

A) effort and rewards received
B) effort and performance
C) workers’ needs and available rewards
D) performance and needs

47) Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY question that an employee would ask himself when thinking about what to do and how hard to try to succeed at work?

A) How much money will the company gain from this work?
B) Will I be able to obtain outcomes I want?
C) Do I need to perform at a high level to obtain these outcomes?
D) If I try hard, will I be able to perform at a high level?

48) According to expectancy theory, valence, instrumentality, and expectancy must be ________ in order for an employee to be motivated to perform desired behaviors and to perform them at a high level.

A) zero
B) one
C) high
D) low

49) According to ________, what is important to motivation is how an employee perceives his or her outcome/input ratio compared to the outcome/input ratio of another person.

A) need theory
B) equity theory
C) expectancy theory
D) organizational justice theory

50) According to equity theory, the two basic types of inequity are ________.

A) referent and individual
B) proportional and absolute
C) perceptual and psychosomatic
D) overpayment and underpayment

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